Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.
24 to 36
6 to 14
18 to 20
1 to 2
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?
Mycoplasma
Fungi
Viruses
Bacteria
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.
bone marrow
the lungs
the thymus gland
the central nervous system
HIV may persist in regions where the antiviral drugs are not as effective, such as the
CNS.
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
Cardiovascular disease
Starvation
Traumatic injury
Infectious disease
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Which statement about vaccines is true?
Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.
Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection.
Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections.
Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
Which statement is true about fungal infections?
They are prevented by vaccines.
They result in release of endotoxins.
They occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?
Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.
O
B
A
A and B
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?
Pernicious anemia
Myasthenia gravis
Hemolytic anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?
DiGeorge syndrome
Bruton disease
Reticular dysgenesis
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)
disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens.
altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease.
undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens.
immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is
IgE.
IgM.
IgA.
IgG.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Magnesium
Iron
Iodine
Zinc
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
Enhancement of B cells and T cells
Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
Depression of B cells and T cells
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Stress-age syndrome results in decreased
ACTH.
catecholamines.
cortisol.
immune system.
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
IL-1 and IL-6
TNF-ß and IL-4
IL-2 and TNF-?
IFN and IL-12
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by
ACTH.
norepinephrine.
cortisol.
epinephrine.
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of
anaplasia.
dysplasia.
myoplasia.
hyperplasia.
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-?) in cell metastasis?
To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
Liposarcoma, lipoma
Adipoma, adisarcoma
Adisarcoma, adipoma
Lipoma, liposarcoma
Question 22
0 / 2 pts
In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
Chromosome fusion
Chromosome translocation
Gene amplification
Point mutation
Question 23
0 / 2 pts
Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
Growth-promoting genes
Oncogenes
Tumor-suppressor genes
Proto-oncogenes
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except
bladder.
kidney.
pancreas.
lung.
skin.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
40%
50%
70%
60%
